I'm a software developer by day (one might say a highly privileged job), so forgive me, but I do deal in 'logic' and formal proofs quite a bit and I've re-read this conversation thread a few times because I was genuinely confused trying to formulate a response. Something just wasn't adding up for me. I think I've finally figured out the source of my confusion.

OK.. so let's work through this together, logically. If I understand correctly, your 'challenge' is this:

"Should Native and Black people be allowed to rape and torture and kill you because of what you do to them, and what your family and people who look like you have done to them?"

Setting the fallacious nature of that question aside for a second, let's make sure that - like any good math or logic problem - we set up the variables correctly in the problem...

I (and obviously another commenter you replied to) are clearly the "white American colonizer". I agree with you. Wholeheartedly. That's not where my confusion lies.

On the American continent, the white colonizers/settlers are the oppressors, and in contrast, the Native and Black people are the oppressed. Again, I agree.

OK so, if we were setting this up like an SAT analogy problem using that syntax, the problem so far looks like this in general terms:

Oppressed : Oppressor

and in the case of the Americas specifically:

Native/Black people : White colonizers

So far so good. I'm tracking. Now let's solve the other side of this analogy.

This is where things get a little contentious. Many would argue that the Palestinians/Arabs are the oppressed that have been displaced and that the Zionists are the colonists/occupiers.

However, you assert that it is in fact the Palestinians/Arabs that are the colonizers, and the Jews that are the displaced indigenous population engaged in "decolonizing" their homeland (your words). Ok, I'll take you at your word. Let's set up the other side of this equation accordingly:

Native/Black people : White colonizers :: Jews : Arab/Palestinians

Or, in long-form English: "Native/Black people are to White colonizers as Jews are to Arab/Palestinians

Ok.. Now here's what I don't understand. You ask if Native and Black people should be allowed to "rape and torture and kill" because of what the white colonizers did to them. I'll just use the term 'attack' for simplicity in our logic equation. What we have on the left side of the equation is:

Native/Black people -[attack]-> White colonizers

.. and the relevant translation to apply to the other side of our analogy would be thus:

Jews -[attack]-> Arab/Palestinians

Now this is where I'm genuinely confused, and seek your clarification to ensure I'm understanding the analogy correctly:

Native/Black people -[attack]-> White colonizers = Jews -[attack]-> Arab/Palestinians

I think your intent was probably to equate the Native/Black people of North America to the Arab/Palestinians in the middle east when asking rhetorically if it would be acceptable for them to attack White settlers...

But what you've actually done is equated the hypothetical attacks on White colonizers by Native/Black people in the US to a fictitious scenario where Jews attacked Arab/Palestinians on Oct. 7.

That can't be right. I'm pretty sure it was Hamas that attacked Jews on Oct. 7, right?

Perhaps you've mixed up the roles of oppressor/oppressed in the Middle East, because if we adjust that accordingly, your analogy then works:

Native/Black people -[attack]-> White colonizers = Arab/Palestinians -[attack]-> Jews

--OR--

If your assertion that the Jews are the oppressed party stands, then what you should have asked for a logically-sound analogy is (adapting your words):

Should you be allowed to rape and torture and kill Native and Black people because of what they do to you now, and what their family and people who look like them have done to you?

Uhh, well now that's a completely nonsensical question (but one consistent with your logic) because I am not the oppressed. I am not oppressed by Native and Black people. It's the other way around.

Your logic implies that my role is equivalent to the Palestinians - as oppressors. This is patently ridiculous.

As you've helpfully pointed out, I possess copious amounts of privilege. The Palestinians of Gaza posses barely any rights, much less running water. I would never attempt to compete with a Palestinian in your game of victimhood Olympics.

So frankly, I'm not sure how to even honestly answer your question, because I'm genuinely unclear what you are trying to ask. Are you willing to grant that Jews might be oppressors in order to balance your equation, or are you going to stick with claiming that a Palestinian is as privileged as I am?

I agree that there is some "exceptionally flawed and backwards logic" at work here, but I don't think it's mine.